Quantity Theory of Money: True or False

I convert F=ma into m=F¡Âa arithmetically as economists convert V=PY¡ÂM into MV=PY. m=F¡Âa predicts absurdly that there is no mass if acceleration is zero. For example, you do not have mass when you sleep. Similarly, MV=PY predicts ridiculously that there is no aggregate income if there is no money. In fact, barter economy operates. As force is scalar in F=ma calculated as mass multiply acceleration so that force is not cause to determine mass in m=F¡Âa, income velocity is scalar in V=PY¡ÂM calculated as ex-post nominal aggregate income is divided by ex-post quantity of money stock so that aggregate income does not depend on income velocity. Since the symbol V in V=PY¡ÂM is scalar and the symbol V in MV=PY is cause so that MV=PY is not equivalent to V=PY¡ÂM, arithmetical conversion is an invalid method to prove MV=PY. In other words, it is computation that MV=PY is equivalent to V=PY¡ÂM as exactly as m=F¡Âa is equivalent to F=ma while it is thinking that MV=PY and V=PY¡ÂM are different. Hence, quantity theory of money is false.