Endogenous preemption on both sides of a market
We study a market in which both buyers and sellers can decide to preempt and set their quantities before market clearing. Will this lead to preemption on both sides of the market, only one side of the market, or to no preemption at all? We find that preemption tends to be asymmetric in the sense that it is restricted to only one side of the market (buyers or sellers).
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- van Damme, Eric & Hurkens, Sjaak, 1999.
"Endogenous Stackelberg Leadership,"
Games and Economic Behavior,
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- Saloner, Garth, 1987. "Cournot duopoly with two production periods," Journal of Economic Theory, Elsevier, vol. 42(1), pages 183-187, June. Full references (including those not matched with items on IDEAS)
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